I have often felt that Homer's desire to academically unify hitting and swinging with concepts of equal importance for both is, perhaps, a misjudgement. ( emoticon for heresy??! but i will expand if questioned on a seperate thread)... but i read on another thread that the first edition did not formally isolate hitting and swinging ... it grew later... and he was planning to formally seperate teh two patterns in two different books... to me that makes sense...
I think that was in reference to a post that I made- just so I can sleep at night - I would not say that he was planning to separate the two patterns into two books- I believe he mentioned it as a passing thought- something that he might have to do , or might want to do. My assumption is that he might have done it IF A) He found it important enough, B) Had the time, C) Had the money. And as things played out- he didn't have B and never had C.
But I did understand what you were saying- so ignore my nitpicking - and back to the regular scheduled show.
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