[Jeff]

DG

I have viewed the TT swing videos (including his "Letter to Lee Dietrick" videos) many times, and I have attempted to use the "right arm" in a variety of ways to supply a "hitting action" while swinging. I still cannot understand why it will not adversely interact with a centrifugal-induced PA#2 release phenomenon (passive release of PA#2). Can you explain in words how one can usefully supply a "right arm hit force" when using a swinger's 4:2:3 release action (that is critically dependent on the passive release of PA#2)?

Here is a hand-drawn graph showing the kinetic sequence in a good golfer who uses a swinger's action.



Diagram 1 represents an optimal kinetic sequence where the pelvis rotates before the shoulders ala Hogan (creating increased torso-pelvic separation in the early downswing) while diagram 2 shows a golfer who rotates the pelvis/shoulders equally fast at the start of the downswing (ala Hardy OPS). Either way, both golfers can optimally release PA#4 in such manner that left arm speed is maximal in the mid-downswing.

Now look at Sergio's downswing hand arc.



His U-shaped hand arc has its tightest turn (smallest radius) at the exact moment when his left arm, and therefore left hand/wrist, is traveling at its maximum speed (because his kinetic sequence is similar to diagram 1 above). That means that the force inducing a centrifugal release of PA#2 is maximal at that late release time point. He simply has to allow PA#2 to release passively (according to the laws of physics) to acquire maximal clubhead speed into impact.

How could a "right arm hit action" at some time-point in his downswing improve on his swinger's action?

Jeff.